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NMC CBT Test Questions and Answers
Leadership, Management & Team working
The TSA computer-based test (TSA CBT) is an exam you must go through to become a TSA inspector or TSO. The notorious test is divided into two sections: the big TSA X-ray test and the English skills section. You will answer questions correctly, and get a high score on the English section as well. Get the Practice Pack & Ace Your TSA Test. Below is cbt sample questions with answers 1. A nurse is assisting the doctor in obtaining history and assessment for a 16y.o patient. As the doctor interviewed the patient, the nurse noted that the patient gets anxious and seemed not to understand the doctor. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?. During consultation, Continue reading 'CBT Sample Questions: Recent CBT Sample. Free Past Questions Practice Centre. Practice all JAMB CBT Past Questions, WAEC SSCE Past Questions (Objective & Theory), Post-UTME Questions, NECO, NABTEB & Even Your 1st Year Past Questions, here on Myschool CBT centre. You can even study all these past questions, perfectly arranged exam by exam, subject by subject or year by year. The Total questions asked in RRB NTPC 1st Stage CBT Exam are 100. The RRB NTPC Exam is conducted for 100 marks. Each question carries 1 mark. Marks deducted for every wrong answer is ⅓. The duration of the RRB NTPC 1st Stage Exam is 90 Minutes. The CBT is multiple choice and can take at a Pearson VUE test centre available in most countries around the world. You can access our main site and visit the link that will assist you in registering for.The exam lasts for 240 minutes (4 hours) giving the candidate enough time to answer questions re-read and double-check each answer before submitting the exam paper.
- The nurse has just been promoted to unit manager. Which advice, offered by a senior unit manager, will help this nurse become inspirational and motivational in this new role?
A.“If you make a mistake with your staff, admit it, apologize, and correct the error if possible.”
B.“Don’t be too soft on the staff. If they make a mistake,be certain to reprimand them immediately.”
C.“Give your best nurses extra attention and rewards for their help.”
D.“Never gets into a disagreement with a staff member.
2. The famous 14 Principles of Management was first defined by
A. Elton Mayo
B. Henri Fayol
C. Adam smith
D. James Watt
3. The nursing staff communicates that the new manager has a focus on the“ bottom line,” and little concern for the quality of care. What is likely true of this nurse manager?
A. The manager is looking at the total care picture.
B. The manager is communicating the importance of a caring environment.
C. The manager understands the organization’s values and how they mesh with the manager’s values.
D. The manager is unwilling to listen to staff concerns unless they have an impact on costs.
4. A very young nurse has been promoted to nurse manager of an inpatient surgical unit. The nurse is concerned that older nurses may not respect the manager’s authority because of the age difference. How can this nurse manager best exercise authority?
A. Use critical thinking to solve problems on the unit.
B.Give assignments clearly, taking staff expertise into consideration.
C. Understand complex health care environments.
D. Maintain an autocratic approach to influence results.
5. What statement, made in the morning shift report, would help an effective manager develop trust on the nursing unit?
A.“I know I told you that you could have the weekend off, but I really need you to work.”
B.“The others work many extra shifts, why can’t you?”
C.“I’m sorry, but I do not have a nurse to spare today to help on your unit. I cannot make a change now, but we should talk further about schedules and needs.”
D.“I can’t believe you need help with such a simple task. Didn’t you learn that in school?”
managers for several new units that the organization will open next year. What should be the primary goal for this work?
A. Focus on rewarding current staff for doing a good job with their assigned tasks by selecting them for promotion.
B. Prepare these managers so that they will focus on maintaining standards of care.
C. Prepare these managers to oversee the entire health care organization.
D. Prepare these managers to interact with hospital administration.
7.
What are the key competencies and features for effec
tive collaboration?
A. Effective communication skills, mutual respect, constru
ctive feedback, and conflict
management.
B. High level of trust and honesty, giving and receiving feed
back, and decision making.
C. Mutual respect and open communication, critical feedbac
k, cooperation, and willingness to
share ideas and decisions.
D. Effective communication, cooperation, and decreased co
mpetition for scarce resources.
8.
A registered nurse is a preceptor for a new nursing gr
aduate an is describing critical paths and
variance analysis to the new nursing graduate. The regist
ered nurse instructs the new nursing
graduate that a variance analysis is performed on all clie
nts:
a)
continuously
b) daily during hospitalization
c) every third day of hospitalization
d) every other day of hospitalization
9.
A nurse manager is planning to implement a change in the met
hod of the documentation
system for the nursing unit. Many problems have occurred
as a result of the present
documentation system, and the nurse manager determine
s that a change is required. The
initial step in the process of change for the nurse manager
is which of the following?
a)
plan strategies to implement the change
b) set goals and priorities regarding the change process
c) identify the inefficiency that needs improvement or corre
ction
d) identify potential solutions and strategies for the change
process
10.
Ms. Castro is newly-promoted to a patient care manager
position. She updates her knowledge
on the theories in management and leadership in order to beco
me effective in her new role.
She learns that some managers have low concern for serv
ices and high concern for staff.
Which style of management refers to this?
a.Organization Man
b. Impoverished Management
c. Country Club Management
d. Team Management
11.
What are essential competencies for today
’
s nurse manager?
A. A vision and goals
B. Communication and teamwork
C. Self- and group awareness
D. Strategic planning and design
12.
As a nurse manager achieves a higher management position
in the organization, there is a
need for what type of skills?
A. Personal and communication skills
B. Communication and technical skills
C. Conceptual and interpersonal skills
D. Visionary and interpersonal skills
13.
The characteristics of an effective leader include:
A. attention to detail
B. financial motivation
C. sound problem-solving skills and strong people skills
D. emphasis on consistent job performance
14.
What is the most important issue confronting nurse mana
gers using situational leadership?
A. Leaders can choose one of the four leadership styles
when faced with a new situation.
B. Personality traits and leader
’
s power base influence the leader
’
s choice of style.
C. Value is placed on the accomplishment of tasks and on
interpersonal relationships between
leader and group members and among group members.
D. Leadership style differs for a group whose members ar
e at different levels of maturity.
15.
A nurse case manager receives a referral to provide ca
se management services for an
adolescent mother who was recently diagnosed with HIV. Wh
ich statement indicates that the
patient understands her illness?
A.
“
I can never have sex again, so I guess I will always be
a single parent.
”
B.
“
I will wear gloves when I
’
m caring for my baby, because I could infect my baby with
AIDS.
”
C.
“
My CD4 count is 200 and my T cells are less than 14%. I
need to stay at these
levels by eating and sleeping well and staying healthy.
”
D.
“
My CD4 count is 800 and my T cells are greater than 14
%. I need to stay at these
levels by eating and sleeping well and staying healthy.
”
16.
When developing a program offering for patients who are new
ly diagnosed with diabetes, a
nurse case manager demonstrates an understanding of lea
rning styles by:
A. Administering a pre- and posttest assessment.
B. Allowing patient
’
s time to voice their opinions.
C. Providing a snack with a low glycemic index.
D.
Utilizing a variety of educational materials.
17.
There have been several patient complaints that the staff
members of the unit are
disorganized and that
“
no one seems to know what to do or when to do it.
”
The staff members
concur that they don
’
t have a real sense of direction and guidance from their lea
der. Which
type of leadership is this unit experiencing?
1. Autocratic.
2. Bureaucratic.
3. Laissez-faire.
4. Authoritarian.
18.
Which strategy could the nurse use to avoid disparity in h
ealth care delivery?
Recognize the cultural issue related to patient care.A.
B. Request more health plan options.
C. Care for more patients even if quality suffers.
D. Campaign for fixed nurse-patient ratios.
19.
Which option best illustrates a positive outcome for manage
d care?
A. Reshaping current policy.
B. Involvement in the political process.
C
. Increase in preventative services.
D. Cost-benefit analysis.
20.
The patient is being discharged from the hospital after having
a coronary artery bypass graft
(CABG). Which level of the health care system will best ser
ve the needs of this patient at this
point?
1. Primary care.
2. Secondary care.
3. Tertiary care.
4. Public health care.
Cbt Questions And Answers
1. The nurse is giving the client with a left cast crutch walking instructions using the three point gait. The client is
allowed touchdown of the affected leg. The nurse tells the client to advance the:
A. Left leg and right crutch then right leg and left crutch
B. Crutches and then both legs simultaneously
C. Crutches and the right leg then advance the left leg
D. Crutches and the left leg then advance the right leg
2. A patient was diagnosed to have Chron’s disease. What would the patient be manifesting?
A. Blood and mucous in the faeces C. Loss of appetite
B. Fatigue D. Urgent bowel
3. What is Disclosure according to NHS?
A. It is asking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.
4. All but one are signs of anaphylaxis:
A. itchy skin or a raised, red skin rash C. hypertension and tachycardia
B. swollen eyes, lips, hands and feet D. abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
5. What is comprehensive nursing assessment?
A. It provides the foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater control over their lives and enhance their health status.
B. An in-depth assessment of the patient’s health status, physical examination, risk factors, psychological and social aspects of the patient’s health that usually takes place on admission or transfer to a hospital or healthcare agency.
C. An assessment of a specific condition, problem, identified risks or assessment of care; for example, continence assessment, nutritional assessment, neurological assessment following a head injury, assessment for day care, outpatient consultation for a specific condition.
D. It is a continuous assessment of the patient’s health status accompanied by monitoring and observation of specific problems identified.
6. Define standard precaution:
A. The precautions that are taken with all blood and ‘high-risk’ body fluids.
B. The actions that should be taken in every care situation to protect patients and others from infection,
regardless of what is known of the patient’s status with respect to infection.
C. It is meant to reduce the risk of transmission of bloodbourne and other pathogens from both recognized and
unrecognized sources.
D. The practice of avoiding contact with bodily fluids, by means of wearing of nonporous articles such as gloves, goggles, and face shields.
7. What is the purpose of clamping a chest tube?
A. To prevent further lung collapse and entry of air
B. To minimize the feeling of pain on drain insertion
C. To aid the drain into the correct position.
D. To minimize risk of infection
8. What is not true about compartment syndrome?
A. is a painful and potentially serious condition caused by bleeding or swelling within an enclosed bundle of
muscles
B. it occurs when pressure within a compartment increases and affects the function of the muscle and tissues
C. is defined by a critical pressure increase within a confined compartmental space, causing a decline in the
perfusion pressure to the compartment tissue
D. Compartment syndrome most commonly occurs in compartments in the leg or thigh.
9. What is the best site of buttock injections?
A. Ventrogluteal site B. Dorsogluteal site C. Rectus Femoris D. Greater trochanter area
10. What are the steps for the proper urine collection?
A. Clean meatus with soap and water
B. Catch midstream
C. Dispatch sample to laboratory immediately (within 6 hours)
D. Ask the patient to void her remaining urine into the toilet or bedpan.
A. A, B, & C B. B, C, & D C. A, B, & D D. A, C, & D
11. The doctor is about to insert an IV cannula when he was called to assist in an emergency. The nurse is not experienced in peripheral cannulation. What should the nurse do?
A. Inform the supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.
B. Apply the canula since you have seen it done before.
C. Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.
D. Have a friend help you apply it.
12. What is the purpose of NPO after surgery?
A. To prevent a blood clot C. To facilitate respiration
B. To prevent aspiration D. To prevent embolism
13. Nurses are not using a hoist to transfer patient. They said it was not well maintained. What would you do?
A. make a written report
B. complain verbally
C. take a picture for evidence
D. Do nothing
14. What is not included in the care package in a nursing home?
A. Laundry B. Food C. Nursing Care D. Social Activities
15. What is abduction?
A. any motion of the limbs or other body parts that pulls away from the midline of the body
B. the bending of a joint so as to bring together the parts it connects
C. the straightening of a joint
D. the movement of a body part toward the body’s midline
16. What is compassion?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.
17. What is an intermediate care home?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.
18. Which statement is not correct about the nursing process?
A. An organised, systematic and deliberate approach to nursing with the aim of improving standards in nursing
care.
B. It uses a systematic, holistic, problem solving approach in partnership with the patient and their family.
C. It is a form of documentation.
D. It requires collection of objective data.
19. Why are support stockings used?
A. To help relieve the pain and discomfort C. To prevent new varicose veins from appearing
B. To promote venous flow D. For cosmetic reasons
20. What is the best site to check for oedema?
A. Ankle or foot B. Eyes C. Lungs D. Abdomen
21. All but one describes holistic care:
A. A system of comprehensive or total patient care that considers the physical, emotional, social, economic, and
spiritual needs of the person; his or her response to illness; and the effect of the illness on the ability to meet
self-care needs.
B. It embraces all nursing practice that has enhancement of healing the whole person from birth to death as it’s
goals.
C. An all nursing practice that has healing the person as its goal.
D. It involves understanding the individual as a unitary whole in mutual process with the environment.
22. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What should not be an intervention to this type of patient?
A. Place the patient in a sitting position / upright during and after eating.
B. Water or clear liquids should be given.
C. Instruct the patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
D. Review the patient’s ability to swallow, and note the extent of facial paralysis.
23. Which is not a sign or symptom of baby born with meconium stain?
A. Baby with a loud cry C. slow heartbeat
B. barrel-shaped chest D. rapid or labored breathing
24. A patient underwent an abdominal surgery and will be unable to meet nutritional needs through oral intake. A patient was placed on enteral feeding. How would you position the patient when feeding is being administered?
A. Sitting upright at 30 to 45° C. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
B. Sitting upright at 60 to 75° D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°
25. A patient is being prepared for a surgery and was placed on NPO. What is the purpose of NPO?
A. Prevention of aspiration pneumonia C. For abdominal procedures
B. To facilitate induction of pre-op meds D. To decrease production of fluids
26. It is a condition in which you wake up during the night because you have to urinate.
A. Polyuria B. Oliguria C. Nocturia D. Dysuria
27. You were administering a pre-operative medication to a patient via IM route. Suddenly, you developed a needle-stick injury. Which of the ff interventions will not be appropriate for you to do?
A. Prevent the wound to bleed
B. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
C. Do not suck the wound
D. Dry the wound and over it with a waterproof plaster or dressing
28. Why is pyrexia not evident in the elderly?
A. Due to lesser body fat C. Due to aged hypothalamus
B. Due to immature T cells D. Due to biologic changes
29. When do we need to document?
A. As soon as possible after an event has happened to provide current up to date information about the care
and condition of the patient or client)
B. Every hour
C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
D. At the end of the shift
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30. All should be seen in a good documentation except:
A. legible handwriting
B. Name and signature, position, date and time
C. Abbreviations, jargon, meaningless phrases, irrelevant speculation and offensive subjective statements
D. A correct, consistent, and factual data
31. A patient is scheduled to undergo an Elective Surgery. What is the least thing that should be done?
A. Assess/Obtain the patient’s understanding of, and consent to, the procedure, and a share in the decision making process.
B. Ensure pre-operative fasting, the proposed pain relief method, and expected sequelae are carried out and
discussed.
C. Discuss the risk of operation if it won’t push through.
D. The documentation of details of any discussion in the anaesthetic record.
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32. A patient experienced sensation of fluttering in his chest, light headedness, & chest pain. The doctor diagnosed him with atrial fibrillation. What is atrial fibrillation?
A. a rare, rapid and disorganised rhythm of heartbeats that rapidly leads to loss of consciousness and sudden
death if not treated immediately
B. episodes of abnormally fast heart rate at rest
C. the heart beats more slowly than normal and can cause people to collapse
D. a heart condition that causes an irregular and often abnormally fast heart rate
33. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?
A. Re-site the cannula C. Apply warm compress
B. Inform the doctor D. Discontinue infusion
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34. Which statement is not true about acute illness?
A. A disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course one.
B. It will eventually resolve without any medical supervision.
C. It is rapidly progressive and in need of urgent care.
D. It is prolonged, do not resolve spontaneously, and is rarely captured completely.
35. Taking a nursing history prior to the physical examination allows a nurse to establish a rapport with the patient and family. Elements of the history include all of the ff except:
A. the client’s health status C. social history
B. the course of the present illness D. Cultural beliefs and practices
36. Which is not a sign or symptom of speed shock?
A. Headache B. A tight feeling in the chest C. Irregular pulse D. Cyanosis
37. What is not included in Palliative Care?
A. Psychological support C. Resuscitation
B. Spiritual support D. Pain management
38. All but one is an indication for pleural tubing:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Abnormal blood clotting screen or low platelet count
C. Malignant pleural effusion.
D. Post-operative, for example thoracotomy, cardiac surgery
39. Which is not considered in an oxygen prescription?
A. It should be prescribed.
B. Regular pulse oximetry monitoring must be available in all clinical environments.
C. Can be given to patients who are not hypoxaemic.
D. It must be signed and dated.
40. What is accountability?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.
41. What is primary care?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.
42. What is Advocacy according to NHS Trust?
A. It is taking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.
43. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte levels of a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypokalemia
44. You were the nurse on duty and it’s time to take your patient’s vital signs. Upon checking, you noted that the patient was given Digoxin and now has a heart rate of 50 BPM. What will you do with the next dose of Digoxin?
A. Omit then document C. Administer then document
B. Omit then double the next dose; document D. Administer then recheck VS
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45. A patient had been suffering from severe diarrheoa and is now showing signs of dehydration. Which of the following is not a classic symptom?
A. passing small amounts of urine frequently C. dark-coloured urine
B. dizziness or light-headedness D. thirst
46. Signs and symptoms of early fluid volume deficit, except.
A. Decreased urine output C. Concentrated urine
B. Decreased pulse rate D. Decreased skin turgor
47. Which is not an indication for lumbar tap?
A. For patients with increased ICP
B. For diagnostic purposes
C. Introduction of spinal anaesthesia for surgery
D. Introduction of contrast medium
48. Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.
A. Lie the patient supine in bed with the head raised 45–50 cm with a backrest
B. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
C. Sitting upright at 60 to 75°
D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°
49. MRSA means
A. Methilinase – Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
B. Methicillin-Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
C. Methilinase – Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
D. Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
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50. Among the following values incorporated in NMC’s 6 C’s, which is not included?
A. Care C. Confidentiality
B. Courage D. Communication